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The Incarnation: Does It Make Sense?
Gary Fakhoury
Many have endeavored to explain the difficult
Christological concepts delivered to Christianity by the ancient creeds of Nicea
and Chalcedon. Have they succeeded? Can orthodox Christology be defended
scripturally or logically?
And can the claims that "Jesus is God" or,
alternatively, "Jesus is God and Man" be understood so that
thoughtful believers can understand what it is they are saying they believe?
This lecture aims to examine closely the meaning of the words used to proclaim
the incarnation, compare the doctrine of the God-man against the gospel record,
and come to logical conclusions about the truth-claims of orthodox
Christology.When someone suggests that "Jesus is God,"
or, more precisely, that "Jesus is God and Man, two natures undivided in
one person," how do we test these claims?
In the two lectures I've been privileged to offer so
far to the One God conferences we've seen that this conclusion cannot be drawn
from the writings of John or Paul. Moreover, there is much in their writings
which point in the other direction; to that of a unitary monotheistic faith in
one God, the only true God, the father of Jesus.
But there is another means of inquiry that we can
pursue. Do the claims of orthodox Christology, in the end, make sense? By that
I do not mean to ask, are they immediately and entirely comprehensible by
mentally limited humans? After all, God, we're told, never had a beginning, and
I'm not sure I can entirely grasp how, exactly, that has happened. Yet the
claim uses terms I understand, and does not appear to be self-contradictory.
Even if! can't quite comprehend the way it's occurred, I understand what the statement means.
By the question, "Does the Incarnation Make
Sense?" I do not mean to ask whether the orthodox claims about Jesus are
difficult "hard sayings." There are many counterintuitive things
taught in Scripture, and genuine paradoxes as well, and we believe them also,
as we should.
No, the question means to ask something more specific
than that The question is this: In the final analysis, is it possible for someone
to confess that "Jesus is God," or, more precisely, "Jesus is
God and Man," while understanding of the meaning of the words he is
using? Certainly this is an important issue, because a theological system
which does not make meaningful claims is not one worth believing in. And a
faith wherein believers cannot make sense of what they say they believe can
never be a triumphant one.
So our task in this hour is to discuss the meaning of
the claims of orthodox Christology, compare them to relevant NT passages, and
to arrive at conclusions concerning the truth claims of orthodox Christology.
The Caledonian Model and the New Testament Record
In the fourth century Arius of Alexandria gained
notoriety by publicly opposing the emerging fashion of the period—that is,
Christians daring to call Jesus "very God." It is not often recognized
today that Arius was a conservative in his time. He was reacting to innovations
in Christian theology that had been slowly but inexorably marching forward
since the second century. After sixteen centuries of orthodox indoctrination,
today the situation is completely reversed Those who believe Jesus is God are
the "conservatives" now, and those who do not appear to be the innovators,
the radicals—indeed, the subversives.
No event did more to permanently establish Jesus'
Godhood in Western Christianity than the Council of Nicea in 325 AD., a
gathering of about 250 bishops at the behest of Emperor Constantine. Their task
was to settle once and for all the disruptive controversy between Arius, on the
one hand, and Athanasius, who taught that Jesus was very God.
As Richard Rubenstein points out in his fascinating
account of that period, When Jesus Became God, Nicea was as much
political convention as church council, and, for all intents and purposes, the
fix was in. Constantine was sympathetic to Athanasius' view all along, if for
no other reason than that in it he saw a more effective path to unify the new
Christian empire he'd hoped to build. So in the end, only three bishops could
bring themselves to stand with Arius. Naturally, the Council came down on the
side of Athanasius and drafted what became known as the Creed of Nicea, to be
read in all the churches:
"We believe in one God, the Father Almighty,
Maker of all things visible and invisible.
"And in one Lord Jesus Christ, the Son of God,
begotten of the Father (the only-begotten; that is, of the essence of the
Father, God of God), Light of Light, very God of very God, begotten, not made,
being of one substance with the Father; by whom all things were made (both in
heaven and on earth); who for us men, and for our salvation, came down and was
incarnate and was made man; he suffered, and the third day he rose again, ascended
into heaven; from thence he shall come to judge the quick and the dead.
"And in the Holy Ghost.
"(But for those who say; 'There was a time when
he was not'; and 'He was not before he was made'; and 'He was made out of nothing,'
or 'He is of another substance' or 'essence,' or 'The Son of God is created,'
or 'changeable,' or 'alterable'—they are condemned by the holy catholic and apostolic
Church.)"
Now, the more one reads this creed the more apparent
it becomes that the creed's positive statements are rather general in nature
and its negative statements—what it says they're against—are quite specific. So
it has long been recognized that Nicea did a good job telling the world what
the Council did not believe—namely, Arianism—but not such a good job explaining
what it did believe.
As a result, a number of theories were bandied about
in an attempt to explain how one should understand the Creed's statements that
the Son of God, who was "of the essence of the Father, God of God. . .
being of one substance with the Father," nevertheless "came down and
was incarnate and was made man." Those theories, developed by men like
Nestorius, Appolinarius and Eutychius, created heated controversies which bear
their names, and in time it became apparent that another council was needed to
address the nature of Jesus.
Enter the Council of Chalcedon in 451 AD, which
sought to explain once and for all how Christians are to understand Jesus'
alleged dual nature. At a gathering of 600 bishops the Council established this
Definition, which has served as the orthodox belief concerning Jesus ever
since:
"We, then, following the holy Fathers, all with
one consent, teach men to confess one and the same Son, our Lord Jesus Christ,
the same perfect in Godhood and also perfect in manhood; truly God and truly
man, of a reasonable (rational) soul and body; consubstantial (coessential)
with the Father according to the Godhood, and consubstantial with us according
to the Manhood; in all things like unto us, without sin; begotten before all
ages of the Father according to the Godhood, and in these latter days, for us
and for our salvation, born of the Virgin Mary, the Mother of God, according to
the Manhood; one and the same Christ, Son, Lord, Only-begotten, to be acknowledged
in two natures, inconfusedly, unchangeably, indivisibly, inseparably; the
distinction of natures being by no means taken away by the union, but rather
the property of each nature being preserved, and concurring in one Person, and
one Subsistence, not parted or divided into two persons, but one and the same
Son, and only begotten, God the Word, the Lord Jesus Christ, as the prophets
from the beginning (have declared) concerning him, and the Lord Jesus Christ himself
has taught us, and the Creed of the holy Fathers has handed down to us."
Anyone who teaches that Jesus is "fully God and
fully man," being "one person with two natures," is simply
offering a condensed version of Chalcedon. It is this Definition, and the Creed
of Nice a which gave rise to it, which we critique when we critique orthodox
Christology, for they define orthodox Christology. If you grew up attending a
Christian church and your parents were not Jehovah's Witnesses, in one form or
another this is what you were taught about Jesus.
Our task at the moment is to attempt to understand
these creeds on their own terms so we can accurately and fairly test their
claims. Many have undertaken to expound on Chalcedon over the years, of course,
and what follows is merely a tiny sample:
Moving forward from the ancient period, the
Athanasian Creed proclaims Jesus is "One, not by conversion of the
Godhood into flesh: but by taking of the manhood into God."
Calvin wrote of Jesus that "the divinity was so
conjoined and united with the humanity, that the entire properties of each
nature remain entire, and yet the two natures constitute only one Christ."
The Westminster Confession of Faith speaks of Christ
having "two whole, perfect, and distinct natures, the Godhood and the
manhood"
A.B. Bruce explained that "in Christ must be
recognized two distinct natures, the divine not converted into the human, the
human not absorbed into the divine."
Earlier in the last century J.P. Arendzen wrote that
the incarnation rests upon the distinction between nature and person, and
attempted to explain the difference between the two. "Every man is fully
aware that, though his fellow men share something with him, they are not he.
They share with him his nature, but not his person. They are what he is,
but they are not who he is."
So, Arendzen suggests, the what of Jesus was
his two natures. The who of Jesus was his personal identity, Jesus, God
the Son.
Recently, Ron Rhodes, an associate of orthodox
apologist Hank Hanegraaf—Christian radio's "Bible Answer Man"—explained
the traditional doctrine this way in his book Reasoning From the Scriptures
with the Jehovah s 'Witnesses (p. 151):
"Theologians have been careful to point out that
the incarnation involved a gaining of human attributes and not a giving up of
divine attributes. . . As J.I. Packer puts it, 'He was no less God then (in the
incarnation) than before; but he had begun to be man. He was not now God minus
some elements of His deity, but God plus all that He had made His
own by taking manhood to himself. . .' In other words, the incarnation involved
not the subtraction of deity but the addition of humanity. So, in order to
dwell among human beings, Christ made himself nothing in the sense that He
veiled His preincarnate glory, He submitted to a voluntary nonuse (without a
surrendering) of some of His divine attributes, and He condescended Himself by
taking on a human nature."
C.F.D. Moule writes, in the spirit of many others,
that there was "a unique and distinctive identification of God's Word with
Jesus. . . in Jesus the Logos became a man of flesh and blood."
Though these works courageously defend the ancient
creeds and are undoubtedly sincerely held, are they true? Having now given the
orthodox doctrine a fair hearing in both its ancient and modern expressions,
we're ready to begin testing its fundamental claims.
Let's begin with Moule's contention that, in keeping
with the conventional reading of John 1, the Logos—assumed to be a divine person—became
a man of flesh and blood. All exegetical shortcomings of this view aside, what
questions naturally follow?
The most pressing seems to be this: exactly what was
the same, and what was different about the Logos after it had become
flesh and blood? What, precisely, is being stated?
Defenders of orthodoxy answer that everything the
Logos was continued in his new state; as J.I. Packer explains, incarnate Jesus
"was not now God minus some elements of His deity, but God plus all
that He had made His own by taking manhood to himself"
If this is true, then logically it must follow that whatever
God could not have undergone in preincarnate state he could not have undergone
in incarnate state. Why? Because nothing of God was lost in the incarnation,
we're told. God exists fully in the man Jesus, we are told God plus humanity,
not humanity minus parts of God, etc. Only by maintaining this can they say
that Jesus was "fully God and fully man." The orthodox doctrine,
established by the ancient creeds, demands it.
So then, if God could not experience in incarnate
state anything he could not have experienced in preincarnate state, how do we
explain the New Testament witness to Jesus?
Jesus' Knowledge
The Old and New Testaments both teach that God knows
everything that happens in the universe, including things which are secrets to
men, such as activity within the wombs of women and in the secret counsels of
men's hearts (I Ki. 8:39; Job 28:10; 42:2; Ps. 33:13; 139:1-16; 147:4, 5; Isa.
46:10; Jer. 23:24; Mt. 10:29,30; Heb. 4:13; I In. 3:20).
Now, in contrast. to this, Luke tells us that Jesus
"increased in wisdom" (Lk. 2:52). We may well ask why such an
increase was even possible—much less necessary—if in fact all of God became
the infant Jesus. After becoming an adult, Jesus often revealed the same kind
of ignorance of earthly and heavenly events that any normal man would have. He
claims to have not known who touched his garments (Mark 5:30-33), how many
loaves the disciples had (Mark 6:38), how long people had been demon-possessed
(Mark 9:21), when He would return (Mark 13:32), and so on. Moreover Jesus
expresses surprise at times when certain events manifest themselves (Mk. 6:6;
Lk. 7:9). If orthodox Christology is correct, this is hard to attribute to
anything other than conscious deceit.
Incarnationalists sometimes respond by suggesting
that perhaps the divine nature in Jesus did know the time of his return and
other facts, but this knowledge was purposefully limited. Ron Rhodes suggested
earlier that Jesus "submitted to a voluntary nonuse (without surrendering)
of some of His divine attributes."
A. N. S. Lane counters: "This is like claiming
that I am experiencing both poverty and wealth because there is no money in my
left pocket while in my right pocket I have a million pounds. Wealth eliminates
poverty. Omniscience and ignorance, omnipotence and impotence cannot coexist.
The former swamps the latter. A cup cannot become empty while remaining full .
. . While the Chalcedonian Definition may allow a theoretical acknowledgement
of human limitation in Christ, in practice it denies them. As man he may have
been limited, but the same one person at that very instant was unlimited as
God." ("Christology Beyond Chalcedon" in Christ the Lord:
Studies in Christology Presented to Donald Guthrie, p. 270)
Lane's point is crucial. Orthodoxy insists that we
recognize Jesus as one person. This is stressed over and over again, and
for good reason. But if this is true, and if all of the alleged divine Logos
personage incarnated Jesus, then that one person must have known
everything God knows.
Lane has more to say on this subject that demands our
consideration: "The question of omniscience is far from being merely
academic . . . It is hard to see how an omniscient man could be genuinely tempted
to do something that he knew that he would not do . . . It is hard to
see how omniscience could be reconciled with the struggles of Gethsemane and
Calvary. . . To refuse to accept the omniscience of the historical Christ is
not to deny a biblical paradox but to defend the biblical doctrine of the true
humanity of Christ against an unbiblical intrusion" (ibid., p. 271).
In response to these difficulties, some have been
tempted to flee into the arms of the Kenotic Theory, which we touched upon
yesterday in our discussion of Philippians 2. The idea here is that upon the
moment of incarnation, the Logos emptied himself of those divine qualities
which cannot be mediated in a human body (omniscience, omnipotence,
omnipresence, etc.). This was widely taught in the old Worldwide Church of God,
and remains so by many latter-day followers of Herbert Armstrong's theology.
As we saw yesterday, it is based upon an unwarranted introduction of additional
meaning to the word ekenosen—or "emptied"—in verse 7 of that
chapter; but its theological difficulties are even more daunting.
On its own terms, the Kenotic Theory presupposes, at
best, a partial incarnation. Indeed, the more complete the alleged divine
self-emptying, the less complete the divine incarnation. How is it that
Jesus was truly "God in the flesh" when much of what makes God God
was not present in him? Should we not conclude, on the basis of the Kenotic
Theory's own claims, that Jesus was God merely by degree? Informed scholars
have thus abandoned the Kenotic Theory, because it effectively denies a
complete incarnation. No one wants to claim that in Jesus only a percentage of
God existed.
So it would seem we are stuck, for better or for
worse, with a complete incarnation. And so, we must ask again, if there was a
complete incarnation of the all-knowing divine Logos in the man Jesus, what of
his claims to not know things, and his surprise to discover earthly matters
that God surely knew? Is there any answer?
Jesus, Sin and Temptation
The writer of Hebrews
offers us one of the most provocative pictures of Jesus in the entire New
Testament. For while he promotes one of the highest Christologies, claiming
Jesus was without equal in all God's creation (Heb. l)—at the same time, he
insists Jesus experienced all the temptations common to men:
"For both He who
sanctifies and those who are being sanctified are all of one, for which reason
He is not ashamed to call them brethren. . . inasmuch then as the children have
partaken of flesh and blood, He Himself likewise shared in the same. . .
Therefore in all things He had to be made like His brethren . . . For in
that He Himself has suffered, being tempted, He is able to aid those who
are tempted" (Heb. 2: I 0, II, 14, 17, 18).
"For we do not have a
High Priest who cannot sympathize with our weaknesses, but was in all points
tempted as we are, yet without sin . . . He can have compassion on those
who are ignorant and going astray, since he himself is also beset by weakness.
. . though He was a Son, yet He learned obedience by the things which He
suffered. And having become perfected, He became the author of eternal
salvation to all who obey Him" (Heb. 4:15; 5:2, 8, 9).
Now, the most obvious
difficulty, which I do not know that orthodoxy has ever been able to truly
resolve, is how could God, who cannot be tempted with sin, be tempted with sin
to any degree? How is it, if Jesus was truly God incarnate, that any temptation
could have occurred at all?
James is very clear:
"Let no man say when he is tempted, 'I am tempted by God'; for God cannot
be tempted by evil, nor does He Himself tempt anyone. But each one is tempted
when he is drawn away by his own desires and enticed" (James 1:13, 14).
What was the manner of
Jesus' temptation? Was it only the need to eat, fatigue from overwork, and fear
of death? No doubt it was all that, but Hebrews insists it was more than that:
Jesus was "tempted in all points as we are, yet without sin."
The "temptation"
was the temptation to sin! This was not only physical weakness brought on by
his inhabiting of a fleshly body; it was moral temptation, the same kind
of moral temptation each of us face every day.
Orthodox apologist Robert
Bowman, another associate of Hank Hanegraaf, writing in Why You Should
Believe in the Trinity (p.75), replies: "God, as God, cannot be
tempted: but Jesus, who is both God and man, as man and living in a
fallen earth, was tempted."
But this is not what these
people have told us we must believe about the incarnated Jesus! We have been
told by these same people that nothing of God was lost in the
incarnation and that all of the Logos was found in the man Jesus. They've
insisted that the divine nature of the Logos was completely and permanently
united with a human nature in the man Jesus. Then, when faced with these obvious
difficulties, they subtly back away from this conviction, and suggest that perhaps
this alleged uniting was not so complete, so that one part of Jesus may have
experienced what another part of Jesus did not.
Do these people believe
their own doctrine, or do they not?
Jesus' Will
In Jesus' struggle in the
Garden of Gethsemane, he prayed: "Abba, Father, all things are possible
for You. Take this cup away from Me; nevertheless, not what I will, but what
You will" (Mark 14:36).
Jesus' request is direct
and clear: "Take this cup away from Me." That was what Jesus
wanted! And it just happened to be the precise opposite of what God wanted.
Jesus' will was not God's will in this matter, at this moment.
Why, then, did Jesus not
sin? Because he also said, "Nevertheless, not what I will, but what
You will." His will was to not die. God's will, we find out, was that he
must die. One of them was not going to get what he wanted, and what made Jesus
a fitting sacrifice for our sins is that he agreed to be the one to not get
what he wanted. We can all be thankful that our savior was willing to
thwart his own will to fulfill God's (see John 12:27,28).
Was there a titanic struggle
in Jesus' mind about what to do? Yes! But there is no evidence the struggle was
between competing desires within Jesus, but between his singular desire and
what he suspected was the will of God. It was his fear of failing to conform
to the will of God which created the struggle (Lk. 22:44; Heb. 5:7).
It is time we ask those
who want us to believe Jesus was God in the flesh to explain exactly how that
claim can be true when his desires could—if even for a moment—stand in
opposition to the complete Godhood he was supposed to have possessed by nature.
Jesus' "Death"
Now we broach what may
well be the greatest difficulty in believing that Jesus was God incarnate: his
death. Both Testaments teach that God cannot die (Gen. 21:33; Deut. 32:40;
33:27; Ps. 41:13; 102:12,2427; Isa. 26:4; 40:28; 57:15; Jer. 10:10; Dan. 4:34;
Ro. 1:12; II Cor. 5:1; I Tim. 1:17).
So is there any teaching
in Scripture which suggests that perhaps Jesus was resting, or greatly wounded
but not quite dead, or simply waiting patiently in the tomb for his
"resurrection"?
No. Every NT prophecy of
Jesus' crucifixion, death and burial is made with the conviction that Jesus was
going to die like any other man. After the fact, every reference back to his
death says he was as dead as any man is dead when he is dead (Mt. 17:22,23;
21:37-39; Mk. 9:31; Lk. 9:22; In. 10:11; 15:13; 18:31,32; 19:33; Ac 2:23, 24;
3:15; 5:30; 7:52; Ro. 14:9; I Cor. 15:3; I Thess. 4: 14).
The words used in these passages—apokteino, thnesko,
thanatos, anaireo, nekros, phoneus—are all standard-usage terms for kill,
dead, death and murder. In the NT they are customarily used to describe the
death of mortals; they are not used in a special way when applied to Jesus.
Moreover, for theological reasons, Jesus must have
been truly dead; for otherwise no one would have paid the death penalty for our
sins, men can have no hope of any life beyond the present, and Christianity is
essentially a fraud (Ro. 3:25; 4:25; 5:1-10; 6:1-10; II Cor. 5:8; Gal. 1:3;
4:4; Eph. 1:7; Coll:14, 19-22; I Thess. 5:9; He. 2:9; 9:9-15, 22, 25,26;
10:1-12, 18-20; I Pet. 1:18-20; 2:24; I John 2:2; Rev. 5:9).
John Hick elucidates the considerable difficulties
for orthodoxy in this discussion: ". . . the story (of vicarious death for
men's sins), whilst it makes perfect sense when told about a good human being,
loses its point when the victim is said to God himself. For whilst a human
being can make the supreme sacrifice by giving his life for others, God cannot.
God incarnate would know that his 'death' could only be temporary; for God
cannot cease to be God, the eternal source of all life and being; and to speak
literally of his death is to speak without meaning.
"Indeed in earlier theology, to avoid
undermining the very idea of God, some clutched at the desperate expedient of
saying that qua God, Jesus was not subject to death and that it was qua
man that he was killed [Cf. Bowman, above.] But then we sunder the two
natures and thereby destroy the idea of incarnation. How was God incarnate as
Jesus of Nazareth if God did not undergo what Jesus underwent?"
("Evil and Incarnation," Incarnation and Myth: The Debate Continued,
p. 83)
This question strikes at the very heart of all of the
scriptural facts which contradict the incarnation doctrine. Until Hick's
challenge is satisfactorily answered, is there any reason to continue
believing the doctrine?
A.N.S. Lane offered this observation:
"The New
Testament gives us a certain amount of material about Jesus but no systematic formulation
of this. The theories come in at this level. They are themselves not biblical
but they are models which purport to interpret the biblical material. The New
Testament provides the data, the theories seek to organize and interpret it . .
. They are to be judged by their success. . . in interpreting the biblical
data—much as a pair of shoes is judged by its ability to fit comfortably round
our feet. Which model fits most comfortably?" ("Christology Beyond
Chalcedon," p. 280)
Given that the Nicean/Chalcedonian model pinches at
the point of Jesus' professed ignorance pinches
at the point of Jesus' differentiated will, pinches at the point of Jesus'
temptation to sin, and pinches at the point of Jesus' death—all central issues
to the life of Christ—we may be excused, I trust, for requesting to try on a
different pair.
Logic,
Semantics and the Meaning of "God"
It is an unavoidable fact that when we do theology,
words are required. After all, we can't take God out and touch Him, feel Him,
measure Him, or take photographs of Him. For the moment, we can only talk about
Him.
Human language is, to be sure, inadequate to the
task; yet our only option is to not think or talk about God at all. It is a
fact that God has engineered us in such a way that we are unable to express
thoughts without words. Perhaps someday we will communicate with each other
through some kind of spiritual telepathy. But for now, words we are stuck with.
Now words have meanings, or they have no value at
all. The meaning of words is the field of semantics, and so when we do
theology we are unavoidably laboring in the realm of semantics. So our only real
choice, if we want to do theology at all, is to speak as precisely as we can
about what we mean when we talk about God.
Therefore, let's ask, can one express orthodox
Christology with words which carry stable and consistent meaning, and can one
express orthodox Christology without slipping into the fog of mystification?
We have already witnessed the difficulty of adhering
to the incarnation when confronted with the plain facts of Scripture
concerning Jesus' earthly experience. Those difficulties alone, I suggest, are
enough to dispense with the whole program. There are simply too many points at
which the NT patently disagrees with the doctrine for it to possibly pass as
"biblical."
But going further, let's ask what, exactly, does it
mean to say "Jesus is God," or "Jesus is fully God and fully
man?" We all grew up with these statements; we believed them, most of us,
for many years. Some of us powerfully preached them to others. So there's a
familiarity there. These confessions don't seem so strange, because they're
dear old friends; and of course it's ungracious to press too hard upon the
shortcomings of old friends.
Yet, press we must, for we do not own our minds and
we have not been given the right to believe anything we please, regardless of
how comfortable some ideas make us feel. Our minds have been bought with a
price, and as such we have a divine obligation to subject our beliefs to rigorous
testing, "for those who worship God," Jesus said, "must worship
in spirit and in truth."
"Jesus Is
God"
This seemingly simple confession is packed with
semantic possibilities. Let's break this phrase down and attempt to enumerate
its possible meanings.
"Jesus"
Typically refers to the historical Jesus of Nazareth,
an itinerant rabbi who lived in Palestine in the first century AD, who died on
a Roman cross. It also refers to the resurrected Jesus, who was raised to life
by God after being dead three days and nights in a tomb, and who later ascended
"to the right hand of the Father" in heaven.
"Is"
Believe it or not, today we're actually going to discuss
what the meaning of "is" is.
(11) The
"is" of identity
"Bush is President." A one-to-one statement
of exclusive identity which should be reversible, so that if "Bush is
President," it can also be said that "the President is Bush."
(12) The
"is" of predication
"Westby is white-haired." Predication does
not require reversibility, so for "Westby is white-haired" to be
true, "white-haired is Westby" need not be true. When
white-hairedness is predicated of Westby, it is not exclusive to Westby.
Rather, white-hairedness is a quality which Westby possesses, which any number
of others may also possess. Some, alas, would be happy to have any hair at all.
(13) The "is" of existence
"Tyler is a city in Texas."
"God"
Here definitions become more fluid, some of which is the
doing of orthodoxy but some of which is simply a fact of scripture. There are
six senses in which "God" is used in and out of the Bible:
(G1) The
proper name of the Supreme Diety of heaven.
The Hebrews knew God by
the proper name YHVH, the name God revealed to them. Today many of us are not
inclined to use YHVH, rather to use "God" as an equivalent, so that,
when we pray, as David, did, "Give ear to my prayer, O God. . ." (Ps.
55:1) we are calling out personally to the One whose name to us is simply,
"God" In belief and practice this nearly always refers to God the
Father.
(G2) The
tide of the Supreme Diety of heaven
"God" in this
case is a descriptive title, rather than a proper name as such, with a specific
and unique reference to the Creator God of the universe. (Gen. 1:1; I Ki.
18:21; Mt. 22:32; Eph. 4:6; Heb. 1:1)
(G3) A
divine level of existence
A mortal term for all
divine Persons thought to live and exist as God. For Trinitarians, this is
Father, Son and Holy Spirit; in Armstrong theology, it is Father, Son, and all
faithful believers who will someday be resurrected, glorified and inducted into
the God Family to live on what is called the "God plane of
existence."
(G4)
Subordinate divinities
All the powers,
principalities, and so-called gods of the invisible world, real and imagined,
including Satan, his demons and pagan deities. Usually rendered with a
lower-case "g." (Ex. 32:4; Judges 8:33; Judges 16:23, I Cor. 8:5; n
Cor. 4:4)
(GS) Exalted
human beings and angels
Human beings or angels
endued by God with special authority were sometimes called "god." The
Hebrew term elohim is often used in these cases (Gen. 23:5, Ex. 7:1, Ex.
21:6, Ps. 8:5).
(G6)
Anything which becomes the object of a religious attitude
Spiritually speaking,
whatever is of most importance to a man can be said to be his "god" A
man's belly, in this sense, can be called his "god" (Phil. 3:19).
So now we are prepared to analyze the phrase,
"Jesus is God." What are its possible meanings?
Jesus is (11)
God (G1). In this case Jesus was, whether they recognized it
or not, the YHVH of the Hebrews. He is also the One Christians refer to when
they call out to God in prayer and speak of the One in heaven named
"God." Orthodoxy does not teach this because it excludes the Father
and Holy Spirit. Armstrong theology teaches that Jesus was indeed YHVH,
but the Father is generally in view when the name of God is uttered today. This
inconsistency has never been resolved.
Jesus is (11)
God (G2). Here, Jesus is equivalent to the One God of heaven,
and the One God of Heaven is Jesus. Orthodoxy does not teach this because it
excludes the Father and Holy Spirit. Armstrong theology does not teach this
because it excludes the Father.
Jesus is (13)
God (G3). That is, Jesus exists on the God plane, and
lives as all God Persons live. The problem here is that the G3 definition of
God does not exist in Scripture. There is no mention of a class of God beings
or persons in Scripture. In Scripture, the heavenly Deity is only referred to
in the G1 and G2 sense. Therefore this confession concerning Jesus would be
unscriptural.
Jesus is (12)
God (G2). Here, Jesus possesses the divine character
qualities of the One God of heaven. This appears to be quite biblical, but the
NT teaches that through the agency of the Holy Spirit, Christians also possess
the divine nature (I Cor. 11:7; Eph. 3:19; n Pet. 1 :4). Thus this claim is not
exclusive to Jesus, and in any case is not an ontological claim concerning
Jesus' state of being (as is 11 + G1 or 11 + G2). Rather it is a claim
concerning the character attributes of Jesus, which all predicate statements
are. This is roughly equivalent to saying "Jesus is Godlike," which
I'm sure we would all agree with, and which we know should apply to us as well—"Be
you perfect, as your Father in heaven is perfect" (Mt. 5:48).
Jesus is (13)
God (GS). This is the sense in which we can understand
Thomas' declaration in John 20:28, "My Lord and my God!" In a true
moment of "shock and awe," confronting the resurrected Jesus led a
stunned Thomas to suddenly realize he was in the presence of more than an
esteemed prophet or rabbi, but the very son of God. We understand it is God's
intent that "at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of those in
heaven, and those on earth, and of those under the earth, and that every tongue
should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father"
(Phil. 2: 10, 11).
Jesus is (13)
God (G6). This is a confession concerning Jesus we can and
should make every day. Christians should have an ever-growing awareness of and
appreciation for Jesus' role as our redeemer, High Priest and heavenly
intercessor: "Looking unto Jesus, the author and finisher of our faith. .
." (Heb. 12:2).
So, in what sense can the phrase "Jesus is
God" be both meaningfully and scripturally uttered? Only the last three.
But only the first three make ontological claims, that is, claims concerning
the nature of Jesus' being! There are no confessions here which are both
scriptural and support the Nicean/Chalcedonian view of Jesus.
Therefore "Jesus is God" is not a
meaningful phrase with respect to Jesus' nature or being, because there is no
sense in which the words can be understood which are remotely biblical.
Jesus Is God and Man"
Now, some orthodox theologians would agree with every
word of what was just said. They would say that "Jesus is God" is,
strictly speaking, not what the creeds teach. The creeds teach that Jesus is
God and man, because that is the truth of Scripture, they say.
Fine, then, exactly what does the statement
"Jesus is God and Man" mean? Here we need to return to our previous
question: If the Logos was a preexistent divine being that became the man
Jesus, what changed in the Logos, and what continued?
The first part of the question is easy to answer;
Logos prior had no flesh-and-blood body, but after the incarnation he did. The
problem lies in how to understand the one-to-one identification of the Logos
with Jesus of Nazareth that Incarnationalists want us to make.
This has proven to be extremely difficult for
theologians to articulate, so different analogies have been attempted; perhaps
you've heard of some of them. One of the most popular has been the fable of the
prince becoming a frog. Here we think we have approached the heart of the matter;
the body is different, but the frog still has the prince's memory, the same
love for the princess, and so on.
But in this case has the prince truly
"become" a frog or has he in fact hijacked a frog's body? You'd have
to say the latter, because a frog, by definition, does not love princesses. The
prince has not become a frog, strictly speaking; he has merely disguised
himself as a frog. This is the idea behind the work of the docetists—whom John
fought so vigorously—in that they claimed Jesus was actually a divine being in
human dress.
Well, then, we don't want to go there, so let's grant
that the prince has not retained his former princeliness, and that like all
real frogs he knows nothing of princesses, castles and charity balls. But in
that case, the prince has not become a frog, the prince has been replaced
by a frog. The prince, by virtue of losing his princeliness, has
effectively disappeared.
Silly fable as this is, does it not precisely outline
the dilemma of the incarnation? We are trying to understand the alleged
"God-man." But when we try to affirm the continuity of the Logos, the
human becomes a mere suit of clothes; and when we try to affirm the human, the
Logos evaporates; and if we try to affirm both, we haven't the slightest idea
what we're talking about.
Michael Goulder has expressed well the fix defenders
of orthodoxy are in: "All attempts that have been made to say what the
element of continuity is between the Word and Jesus seem to be either
implausible or vacuous, and they have in many cases been declared heresy. But
unless some element of continuity can be alleged, nobody knows what is being
stated, and 'the Word became a man of flesh and blood' is apparently not sense.
This is the challenge to Incarnationalists: unless some continuity between
the Word and Jesus is being asserted. their doctrine is not a paradox but a
mystification, not an apparent contradiction but apparent nonsense" ("Paradox
and Mystification," Incarnation and Myth: The Debate Continued, p.
54).
The heart of the matter
Have you ever heard of the Christian leopards? In the
Sudan, there is a tribe called the Dorze tribe. And if you visit them they will
tell you that leopards, of which are quite a few in the area, are Christians.
Now, upon receiving this piece of information you
might be tempted to ask, 'Isn't a Christian someone who goes to church at
least occasionally, takes communion periodically, and performs acts of
charity?"
They would answer yes, of course. "Do the
leopards here do these things?" No, they would say laughing, they do not.
"Well then, if the leopards don't do those things which define what a
Christian is, how is it they can, in truth, be Christians?" And your Dorze
hosts would answer, "We don't know; but we know they're Christians all the
same." Well, by now you're not quite sure exactly what this "belief'
really amounts to.
What has happened here is that the Dorze tribesmen
have so altered the definition of "Christian," the term can mean
virtually anything, and if a term can mean anything, it means nothing at all.
Without stable definitions of words, no intelligible communication or thought
is possible. So in this connection they are not speaking sense; they are speaking,
quite literally, non-sense, speaking in self-contradiction; the rhetorical
equivalent of "square circle" or "Marxist entrepreneur" or
"Texas culture."
So it is with our Incarnationalists friends. When
they say "Jesus is God and man" they are using the term "God"
in a sense in which the Bible does not use it. We know this because
"God," like "Christian," involves some necessary points of
definition. Quite a number of those defining characteristics could not and did
not apply to Jesus, or to any other man. According to the Bible, God, by
definition, cannot die, by definition, cannot be tempted to sin, by
definition cannot be ignorant, or possess a will contrary to Himself. Yet
according to the gospels all these facts apply to Jesus. According to the Bible,
God, by definition, knows everything, can be anywhere, and can do
anything. Yet according to the gospels, none of these facts apply to Jesus.
So then, the Incarnationalists' "God" just
happens to be the kind of God who can die, just happens to be the kind of God
who can be tempted to sin, just happens to be the kind of God who doesn't know
everything, and so on. When all these necessary attributes of God are qualified
away, do we have any better idea of what, exactly, the Incarnationalist’s
"God" is than we do of the Dorze's "Christian leopards"?
What the defenders of the traditional doctrine will
never tell you, but what we are demonstrating here, is that a radical
redefinition of "God" is necessary to believe any confession of
incarnation; just as a radical redefinition of "Christian" is
necessary to believe the Dorze tribesmen's claims about their local leopard
population.
Something has to go: the biblical definition of God,
or the incarnation. Such is the state of Christian theology at the present
time.
Escaping Into mystery
If patriotism is the last refuge of a scoundrel,
mystery is the last refuge of a befuddled theologian. Eventually, if you ask
enough questions of people who attempt to defend the incarnation, they'll fall
back upon a last, final plea that, in the final analysis, the incarnation is
essentially a mystery and our puny human minds really can't hope to understand
it. We've all heard these excuses, disguised as expressions of humility. They
appear as regularly as clockwork in nearly every article and book which
attempts to defend the indefensible.
I wonder, would these people accept such excuses from
someone teaching a doctrine they were not inclined to believe? Or would
they not insist the man prove his case with scriptural certainty, verbal consistency
and sound logic? When will Incarnationalists begin to live up to the standards
of proof they require of others? You know a religion is in trouble when its
most highly trained experts cannot explain to you their beliefs.
Maurice Wiles has a good suggestion for those who
would push us back into the fog of Christological mystification: "I am not
claiming that one ought to be able perfectly to fathom the mystery of Christ's
being before one is prepared to believe. We do not after all fully understand
the mystery of our own or one another's beings. But when one is asked to
believe something which one cannot even spell out at all in intelligible terms,
it is right to stop and push the questioning one stage further back. Are we
sure that the concept of an incarnate being, one who is both fully God and
fully man, is after all an intelligible concept?" ("Christianity
Without Incarnation?" The Myth of God Incarnate, p. 5).
To Wiles' point, many have explained
things this way: "It is only to be expected that the great God is so far
beyond our ability to imagine or describe him, that theology, if it be true,
will always remain at some level a mystery." Well, how about it? Does mystery
have a place in Christian theology? Mystery, after all, has a long and storied
history in religion; unfortunately, a little too long. It's at least as old as
Nimrod and Semiramis.
In fact,
mystery religion has been the chief feature of pagan systems through the
centuries, and for some very sound psychological reasons. There's power in the
invisible spiritual world. The power of fear, the powerful hope of having our
deepest yearnings fulfilled. Therefore those who seek to mediate between men
and the unseen world, namely the priesthoods of Christian and non-Christian religions,
occupy a powerful position. From their position as mediator, they seek to
control, and through control, to gain esteem and influence.
Now,
there is no more effective lever of control than mystery, because if the
believer does not really understand what he thinks he must believe to be saved—but
can trust the priesthood, the keeper of the mysteries, to handle that for him—then
the believer can rest with the assurance that the "God thing" is
being taken care of as long, of course, as he continues to jump through whatever
hoops the denomination sets up for him; regular attendance, volunteerism,
contributions, etc.
The way
this works is, the believer’s confidence in his understanding of his
Creator is stolen from him by the mysteries, and redeemed for the price
of loyalty to the church. This is happening all over the world, and has
been happening almost since the beginning of time.
Some have
asked, didn't Paul himself say in I Tim. 3:16 that the manifestation of Jesus
was a "mystery"? No, he did not. The Greek word musteerion doesn't
mean mystification, which is what "mystery" has come to mean in
modern English; rather it meant truth once concealed but now revealed to
Gods people.
In fact,
throughout his letters Paul tells Christians they are uniquely positioned to
understand and should understand the musteerion of God (Ro.
1l:25; 16:25,26; I Cor. 2:7-10; 4:1; 15:51; Eph. 1:9; 3:3, 4, 9; 6: 19; Col.
1:26). Jesus said he came to "reveal the Father," not conceal Him.
The heart of Christianity is clarifying the true nature of the divine,
not confusing it. At least it used to be.
How has
Christian theology stumbled down this headlong slide into senseless
mystification? In large measure by making unwarranted leaps of logic from often
ambiguous scriptural premises. I do not know how to better articulate the
nature and wide-ranging effect of this error than Don Culpitt already has, so
here is an extended quote from his treatise, "Jesus and the Meaning of
'God,'" which was published as a chapter of the book Incarnation and
Myth: The Debate Continued (p. 37).
"The
vocabulary of the developed faith is not only very hard to understand, but also
very alien to the New Testament, so it is not surprising that many people
today wish to dispense with it, while yet hoping to retain the divinity of
Jesus in the strong sense. And they wish to claim that the idea is taught in
the New Testament. Here is an example of the difficulty they get into: in The
Truth of God Incarnate the editor of that book, Michael Green, writes as
follows: 'It would be ridiculous to imagine that Jesus is God tout simple. The
New Testament writers do not claim this for him; they know he is very much one
of us.' So it is clear that, like other theologians, Green does not accept
every interpretation of 'Jesus is God.' What, then, is he excluding?
"Elsewhere
in Green's text we find the following statements: Jesus 'takes the place of God
Almighty in the Old Testament, as the one to whom every knee will bow; he is
identified with Almighty God . . . the Father has openly bestowed upon him the
sacred name of God. . . who seems to have accepted worship as his due, and
whose theological teaching is 'rampant megalomania. . . unless he is indeed
God' (quoted from C.S. Lewis).'
"When
the New Testament writers say 'God' they normally mean God the Father, Yahweh
the God of Israel and they do not have any idea of a distinction of coequal
Persons within God. So in order to proclaim Jesus' deity Green must. . .
support this view by leaps in the argument.
"God
was in Christ, therefore Christ was God; the fullness of Deity indwelt Christ,
therefore the fullness of Deity may be predicated of Christ; St. Paul associates
Jesus with God, therefore he identifies Jesus with God; St. Paul
sees all God's action as being mediated through Christ, therefore he regards
Christ as connatural with God; Jesus is God's image, therefore Jesus is God;
and so on.
"The
difficulties, both of logic and exegesis, in the traditional doctrine seem to
me to be overwhelming. People say, What will you put in its place?; and my
answer is, 'What else but the primitive faith as preserved in the New
Testament?"
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